Unintelligent Design

Originally posted by sonhouse
The whole point of studying ice core data is to see what years have thicker layers. Of course ice buildup varies year to year but the record of thin V thick is left in the core. How could it be otherwise?

You have a year where you get 1 mm of ice then a year with 2 mm of ice, those thicknesses do not go away or change, it is 1 mm now and 1 mm 10,000 yea ...[text shortened]... even CLOSE to where just that pressure would make much of a difference in the layer thicknesses.

The reason for studying the ice core data is to gain a climate record. Dating is a side issue and loses accuracy the deeper the core sample. Also it must be assumed whether these layers are a result of a single year or a single season. The common assumption has been a single year. The following is what Wikipedia has to say about it:

CLIMATE RECORD:

As the ice forms from the incremental build up of annual layers of snow, lower layers are older than upper, and an ice core contains ice formed over a range of years. The properties of the ice and the recrystallized inclusions within the ice can then be used to reconstruct a climatic record over the age range of the core, normally through isotopic analysis. This enables the reconstruction of local temperature records and the history of atmospheric composition.

Ice cores contain an abundance of information about climate. Inclusions in the snow of each year remain in the ice, such as wind-blown dust, ash, bubbles of atmospheric gas and radioactive substances. The variety of climatic proxies is greater than in any other natural recorder of climate, such as tree rings or sediment layers.

DATING BY ICE CORES:

Upper layers of ice in a core correspond to a single year or sometimes a single season. Deeper into the ice the layers thin and annual layers become indistinguishable. If the summer temperatures do get above freezing, any ice core record will be severely degraded or completely useless, since meltwater will percolate into the snow.

Shallow cores, or the upper parts of cores in high-accumulation areas, can be dated exactly by counting individual layers, each representing a year. Deeper into the core the layers thin out due to ice flow and high pressure and eventually individual years cannot be distinguished.

Dating is a difficult task. Five different dating methods have been used for Vostok cores, with differences such as 300 years at 100 m depth, 600yr at 200 m, 7000yr at 400 m, 5000yr at 800 m, 6000yr at 1600 m, and 5000yr at 1934 m.

Different dating methods makes comparison and interpretation difficult. Matching peaks by visual examination of Moulton and Vostok ice cores suggests a time difference of about 10,000 years but proper interpretation requires knowing the reasons for the differences.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ice_core

I also found the following statement interesting, for they still have many problems to overcome in accurate dating.

There are great problems relating the dating of the included bubbles to the dating of the ice, since the bubbles only slowly "close off" after the ice has been deposited.

Originally posted by sonship
The point was that an already speaking (probably adult) would start the learning process off.

I think you're agreeing with the paragraph wolfgang.

http://209.240.156.133/Library/Volume2/Part_VI/WhoTaughtAdamtoSpeak.html

No.
In exceptional circumstances where babies (usually twins) have very little
communication with an adult they will, in the absence of language, invent
their own. That is fact and negates your original premise that language has to be learned from someone who already has language.

Originally posted by RJHinds
Oh, so you think God used sign language instead of a spoken language with Adam and Eve? Brilliant! You should submit that as a scientific theory for you would be a sure nominee to get a Nobel Prize in Science and Religion.

Does it say in the bible god didn't use sign language?
Do you not think him capable of sign language?

Originally posted by wolfgang59
Does it say in the bible god didn't use sign language?
Do you not think him capable of sign language?

The Holy Bible tells what God did, not what He didn't do. Who else was there to teach man to speak if it were not God?

So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them. Then God blessed them, and God said to them, “Be fruitful and multiply; fill the earth and subdue it; have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over every living thing that moves on the earth.”

(Genesis 1:27-28 NKJV)

Originally posted by RJHinds
The Holy Bible tells what God did, not what He didn't do. Who else was there to teach man to speak if it were not God?

Talking snakes.

Originally posted by wolfgang59
Talking snakes.

Are you suggesting that the serpent used sign language too?

Originally posted by RJHinds
Are you suggesting that the serpent used sign language too?

No.
but maybe he did
I wasn't there.
were you?

😏

Originally posted by wolfgang59
No.
but maybe he did
I wasn't there.
were you?

😏

No, I was not there, but I read the eyewitness account and there was no need for sign language, bcause they knew a spoken language.

Then the Lord God called to Adam and said to him, “Where are you?”

So he said, “I heard Your voice in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; and I hid myself.”

Genesis 3:9-10 NKJV)

Originally posted by RJHinds
No, I was not there, but I read the eyewitness account and there was no need for sign language, bcause they knew a spoken language.

Then the Lord God called to Adam and said to him, “Where are you?”

So he said, “I heard Your voice in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; and I hid myself.”

Genesis 3:9-10 NKJV)

Adam heard god's voice but where does it say god heard Adam?

Adam was using sign language
that is why he hid so that god could not see what he was signing.

that is why god took away the serpents limbs - so that he could not sign!

You really are mis-interpretting that book RJ

Originally posted by RJHinds
..... but I read the eyewitness account ...

Which eye witness was that?

Originally posted by wolfgang59
Adam heard god's voice but where does it say god heard Adam?

Adam [b]was using sign language
that is why he hid so that god could not see what he was signing.

that is why god took away the serpents limbs - so that he could not sign!

You really are mis-interpretting that book RJ[/b]

It is clear from the following verses in Genesis that they did use signs to communicate. They had one language of words that communicated through speech by using their voices:

Then the Lord God called to Adam and said to him, “Where are you?”

So he said, “I heard Your voice in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; and I hid myself.”

And He said, “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree of which I commanded you that you should not eat?”

Then the man said, “The woman whom You gave to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I ate.”

Then to Adam He said, “Because you have heeded the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree of which I commanded you, saying, ‘You shall not eat of it’:

“Cursed is the ground for your sake;
In toil you shall eat of it
All the days of your life.


(Genesis 3:10-12,17 NKJV)

And Adam called his wife’s name Eve, because she was the mother of all living.

(Genesis 3:20 NKJV)

call

v. called, call·ing, calls

1. To say in a loud voice; announce: called my name from across the street; calling out numbers

http://www.thefreedictionary.com/call



Then Lamech said to his wives:

“Adah and Zillah, hear my voice;
Wives of Lamech, listen to my speech!
For I have killed a man for wounding me,
Even a young man for hurting me.
24 If Cain shall be avenged sevenfold,
Then Lamech seventy-sevenfold.”

(Genesis 4:23-24 NKJV)

Now the whole earth had one language and one speech.

(Genesis 11:1 NKJV)

Originally posted by twhitehead
Which eye witness was that?

God, the Word, and the Holy Spirit.

HalleluYah !!! Praise the Lord! Holy! Holy! Holy!

For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one.

(1 John 5:7 NKJV)

Originally posted by RJHinds
God, the Word, and the Holy Spirit.

HalleluYah !!! Praise the Lord! Holy! Holy! Holy!

[b]For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one.

(1 John 5:7 NKJV)[/b]

But they are not eye witnesses as they do not have eyes.
Of course this brings up the question of who witnessed Adam hiding from God.

Originally posted by twhitehead
But they are not eye witnesses as they do not have eyes.
Of course this brings up the question of who witnessed Adam hiding from God.

I see that you wish only to start an argument and no desire to learn the truth that I am presenting. You do not have spiritual ears to hear or spiritual eyes to see. I shall leave you to wallow in your ignorance until the Holly Spirit takes action.