Originally posted by sonhouse
Well, it is clear the OT didn't ban slavery, but made rules about them. The NT pretty much says nothing, love thy neighbor aside. "God" stated the opposite of obvious in the OT so why would it be any different in the NT, there were and still are slaves, why was there no ban put on owning them in the NT.
Could it be the writers did not want to upset the apple cart too much?
Yes, this is entirely possible. Slavery was considered completely normal back when huge armies battled and many prisoners were taken, mostly to become slaves to the ruling class back in the winners' capital city. 'Spoils of war' they called it. It was practiced by nearly every nation in history until recently. Even Abraham Lincoln said that if he could end the war without freeing the slaves, he would, and if he had to free them, then he would. Ending the war was paramount, ending slavery, not so much. This, even as late as the 19th century.
One clear thing to remember is that back in Biblical times, there were conventions one followed even among slave-holders. This is why there were rules about it written into the Mosaic Laws. It was considered wrong to mistreat your slaves, to the point of starvation or inadequate housing or clothing. Many slaves entered slavery voluntarily to work off debt, knowing they would only be indentured a short time. This was common in America in the 1600s, 1700s and into the early 1800s to pay for your crossing to America by agreeing to a period of 'servitude'. Slavery was considered a normal fact of life for thousands of years, until the southern plantation owners took it to an extreme, considering their slaves even as 'less than human'. It was precisely this mistreatment which precipitated the movement to finally ban slavery in this country.