Originally posted by lucifershammerBecause it is not coherent.
Why should (2) be scratched off the list?
You say that her manner of coming into existence is conditional upon her consent to something, but consent can only be given subsequent to the beginning of one's existence.
It does not answer the question of why we cannot all come into existence in the same immaculate manner as Mary did.
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesFor one, there is nothing whatsoever in the manner of biblical support for such a proposition. The humanity of Jesus was without the sin nature by virtue of the manner of conception, specifically related to the casting off process.
Why don't all of God's children receive such immaculate conception? It seems like the decent thing for God to do, if it is in his power.
For two, without the imputation of Adam's original sin, man would be born completely without hope of salvation. Seems like the decent thing for God to do, since it is within His power, to devise a system by which man can be saved without compromising God's righteousness.
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesIt is coherent if you separate causality from time.
Because it is not coherent.
You say that her manner of coming into existence is conditional upon her consent to something, but consent can only be given subsequent to the beginning of one's existence.
It does not answer the question of why we cannot all come into existence in the same immaculate manner as Mary did.
As to why all of us cannot come into existence in the same manner as Mary, we don't have the same role to play in salvation history.
Originally posted by FreakyKBHWhat??? If there was no original sin we'd have no hope of salvation? How does that work?
For one, there is nothing whatsoever in the manner of biblical support for such a proposition. The humanity of Jesus was without the sin nature by virtue of the manner of conception, specifically related to the casting off process.
For two, without the imputation of Adam's original sin, man would be born completely without hope of salvation. Seems lik ...[text shortened]... power, to devise a system by which man can be saved without compromising God's righteousness.
Originally posted by lucifershammerThis puts the cart before the horse.
As to why all of us cannot come into existence in the same manner as Mary, we don't have the same role to play in salvation history.
There would be no need for any such role playing if we all come into existence in grace as Mary did.
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesBecause we don't deserve to be immaculate conceptions. And because, in baptism, we have sufficient means to escape original sin.
Of course not, because that would be ridiculous.
So, can you provide any non-circular reasons for why God does not allow us all to come into the world in the same state of grace as Mary did?
Btw, where is my reasoning circular?
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesNot always. My Special Relativity is a little rusty, but IIRC for a frame of reference at the speed of light, cause and effect would be simultaneous.
Separating causality from time is incoherent. Causes always preceed effects.
Causes always preceed effects, but must they always be in time?