Certainly not a simple doctrine.

Certainly not a simple doctrine.

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rc

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Originally posted by divegeester
So, you honestly think that the godhead is explained perfectly clearly in the bible and that all the people debating it are being wilfully ignorant. Except you of course?
I dont think the term godhead is actually a Biblical term making your assertion as silly as most of your other ones and its also noteworthy that once again you seem incapable of thinking of any issue objectively without making references to people. Have I said anyone is wilfully ignorant in this case, no? it was merely provided as a refutation of why your insistence that because a matter is debated necessitates somehow that it cannot also be crystal clear. Logic is not really your forte is it.

Your arrogant and opinionated reference to me personally just about sums up your approach to most issues that being an inability to divorce the person from the point they are making.

Kali

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
.. the term godhead...
Godhead appears three times in the Bible

Act_17:29 Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.

Rom_1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

Col_2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

R
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Originally posted by Rajk999
This passage:

Jesus said to him, Have I been so long a time with you, and you have not known Me, Phillip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how is it that you say, Show us the Father? (John 14:8,9)

.. cannot be interpreted to mean that God and Christ are not separate and distinct entities, because the Bible is even clearer that you CANNOT ...[text shortened]... ndments and the sons of God follow Christ's commandments and therefore they indirectly know God.
This passage:

Jesus said to him, Have I been so long a time with you, and you have not known Me, Phillip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how is it that you say, Show us the Father? (John 14:8,9)

.. cannot be interpreted to mean that God and Christ are not separate and distinct entities, because the Bible is even clearer that you CANNOT SEE GOD


It was used by me and others to demonstrate that God and Christ are distinct but not separate.


John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.


Once again, demonstrating that God and Christ are distinct but not separate.

and again

1 John 4:12 No man hath seen God at any time.


It was very bold for John to write this because God appeared to Abraham, Jacob, Isaiah, in the Old Testament. Now the Apostle John says in effect that these seeings don't count as seeing God as manifested in the life, death and resurrection of Jesus.

Jesus has defined and declared God to the extent that compared to Him - No man has ever seen God.

I think this too establishes that God and Christ are not separate. In the Trinity there is an unfathomable harmony of unity and diversity.


Christ in speaking to Philip about knowing the will of God because he has seen Christ and he knows Christ. Those who know Christ are aware of Christ commandments and the sons of God follow Christ's commandments and therefore they indirectly know God.


Both in the Old Testament and in the New Testament following God's commandments was primarily and first a matter of loving God. Trying to follow God's commandments without coming to God to be empowered by His very presence was futile.

This principle does not change ever. Whether the law of Moses or the commandments of Jesus Christ one must first love God.

Would you like to arrange a distinct thread to discuss this matter by itself ?

If not the unity and diversity of the Three of the Trinity is unspeakably perfect. And on either side there are the dangers of extremes.

Taking in all of the utterance of the word of God without prejudice we should see that each lives in the other so that there is no separation of the Father - Son - Holy Spirit.

"Do not let your heart be troubled; believe into God, believe also into Me." (John 14:1)


But I agree with the basic title of your thread if you mean that this revelation to comprehend is not simple.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
I dont think the term godhead is actually a Biblical term making your assertion as silly as most of your other ones and its also noteworthy that once again you seem incapable of thinking of any issue objectively without making references to people. Have I said anyone is wilfully ignorant in this case, no? it was merely provided as a refutation of wh ...[text shortened]... ach to most issues that being an inability to divorce the person from the point they are making.
"Godhead" is not a Biblical term?

Spend less time studying your Ancient Greek and beer making, and more time reading a Bible which has not been doctored by your JW overlords.

http://biblehub.net/search.php?q=Godhead

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Originally posted by Rajk999
Godhead appears three times in the Bible

Act_17:29 Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.

Rom_1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, eve ...[text shortened]... are without excuse:

Col_2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
More than three.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
I dont think the term godhead is actually a Biblical term making your assertion as silly as most of your other ones and its also noteworthy that once again you seem incapable of thinking of any issue objectively without making references to people. Have I said anyone is wilfully ignorant in this case, no? it was merely provided as a refutation of wh ...[text shortened]... ach to most issues that being an inability to divorce the person from the point they are making.
"Silly, incapable, wilfully ignorant, illogical, arrogant, opinionated..."

Are you going for the record of the most ad hominem insults in a single post?

😵

rc

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Originally posted by Rajk999
Godhead appears three times in the Bible

Act_17:29 Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.

Rom_1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, eve ...[text shortened]... are without excuse:

Col_2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
really and upon which Greek term is it based for I doubt very much the English term Godhead, itself ambivalent is an accurate translation.

Lets for example take your first reference, Acts 17:29, it reads from the Greek,

Theion einai homion ( lit. divine to be like) - http://biblehub.com/text/acts/17-29.htm

Can you tell us how you get the term Godhead from the Greek text, for the word is simply not present. A much more accurate translation is simply the Divine being. That at least can be rendered from the original Greek text as in the NIV version,

Therefore since we are God's offspring, we should not think that the divine being is like gold or silver or stone--an image made by human design and skill. - Acts 17:29 - NIV

So how did the term Godhead come to be there and more importantly how did you get it from the Greek text because it simply does not exist.

The Near Genius

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
really and upon which Greek term is it based for I doubt very much the English term Godhead, itself ambivalent is an accurate translation.

Lets for example take your first reference, Acts 17:29, it reads from the Greek,

Theion einai homion ( lit. divine to be like) - http://biblehub.com/text/acts/17-29.htm

Can you tell us how you get the te ...[text shortened]... re and more importantly how did you get it from the Greek text because it simply does not exist.
So the fullness of the "Divine Being" was in Him bodily (Colossians 2:9). 😏

HalleluYah !!! Praise the LORD! Holy! Holy! Holy!

rc

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Originally posted by RJHinds
So the fullness of the "Divine Being" was in Him bodily (Colossians 2:9). 😏

HalleluYah !!! Praise the LORD! Holy! Holy! Holy!
Hinds your text does not even come close to answering the question. The Question was, how do you derive the term Godhead from the original Greek text? because I have contended that its simply not there.

rc

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Can no one tell us how they get the rendering of the term Godhead from the original text. What are we left to think other than divesgeester is intent on using terms that he has no way of knowing the accuracy of and infact has little idea what the Bible actually says and him destined to rule with Jesus as a king and priest. How will he judge the twelve tribes of Israel with such scant understanding?

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Can no one tell us how they get the rendering of the term Godhead from the original text. What are we left to think other than divesgeester is intent on using terms that he has no way of knowing the accuracy of and infact has little idea what the Bible actually says and him destined to rule with Jesus as a king and priest. How will he judge the twelve tribes of Israel with such scant understanding?
The term Godhead is in virtually every translation of the bible. I accept it is not in your JW cult version. If you have evidence that the term Godhead has been mistranslated I suggest you share it rather than throwing ad hominem insults around and making unsubstantiated claims.

Cape Town

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
A much more accurate translation is simply the Divine being.
That is what 'godhead' means. Look it up.

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Originally posted by divegeester
The term Godhead is in virtually every translation of the bible. I accept it is not in your JW cult version. If you have evidence that the term Godhead has been mistranslated I suggest you share it rather than throwing ad hominem insults around and making unsubstantiated claims.
I think much more important, is what does the word mean to you, and is that what the Greek means.

rc

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Originally posted by divegeester
The term Godhead is in virtually every translation of the bible. I accept it is not in your JW cult version. If you have evidence that the term Godhead has been mistranslated I suggest you share it rather than throwing ad hominem insults around and making unsubstantiated claims.
You were not asked how many translations its in nor were you asked how its translated in other versions. What you were actually asked was how you get the term Godhead from the original text. I find your inability to address even the most simplest of points rather tedious because it means that I need to repeat myself again and again until you are either forced to acknowledge what you are being asked or until it eventually penetrates that thick layer of bone which houses your brain.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
You were not asked how many translations its in nor were you asked how its translated in other versions. What you were actually asked was how you get the term Godhead from the original text. I find your inability to address even the most simplest of points rather tedious because it means that I need to repeat myself again and again until you are ei ...[text shortened]... being asked or until it eventually penetrates that thick layer of bone which houses your brain.
Robbie, it is YOU who are claiming that the term "Godhead" is a mistranslation in order to support your view of the trinity and dieity of Christ arguments, therefore it is YOU who need to provide seem evidence on order to substantiate your position.