@eladar said
You need to take a stats class and see that nothing is ever proven true, simply that there is evidence to support.
What is often informally called "scientific proof" by scientists (example; https://www.google.co.uk/[WORD TOO LONG] "The groundbreaking work undertaken by Russell Hulse and Joseph Taylor on binary pulsar systems provided the first
scientific proof of the existence of gravitational waves" ), which means "overwhelming evidence" (as opposed to absolute proof), which is what I am obviously talking about here even if you are not, consists of that "evidence to support", idiot!
Give any example of scientific proof i.e. overwhelming evidence that does NOT consist of "evidence to support"
But if you are talking about pure maths/deductive proof, yes.
But this isn't pure maths or pure deduction but rather SCIENCE and the word "proof" for science is often given a different and more informal meaning than for maths or formal logic; it means what is often called by scientists SCIENTIFIC proof, which means overwhelming evidence, and means the evidence is so strong as to indicate it EXTREMELY unlikely, not impossible, that the theory is false.
If you mean pure maths or pure deductive proof, you are just being evasive via play of semantics.
No study has ever proven anything.
As I said before, if that's true then your Spanish study does NOT prove your theory correct. So why did you bother mentioning it as if it doesn't prove me wrong and doesn't prove your theory right?
How much vitamin D? The amount given in the Spanish study.
Show us your source of information the amount used was always less in the other studies that contradict your theory than in the Spanish study...
If you cannot do that, we all know why.