Originally posted by moon1969Do not assume you know what these women were speaking or what type
True. Most are at least vaguely familiar with the man as the head of household concept, and with the thinking in fundamentalist christian churches that women not be pastors or deacons, but are surprised to see that Paul expressly states that it is shameful for a woman to speak in church, and if she has any questions let her ask her husband at home.
of questions they were asking. It may not have had anything to do with
the topic being discussed for all we know. There had been problems in
this church and that was one reason Paul had come there.
Originally posted by RJHindsThat is the explanation I receive from many Christians that 1 Corinthians 14:34-34 is not generally applicable to women today, but only in that particular church in that particular time and circumstances.
Do not assume you know what these women were speaking or what type
of questions they were asking. It may not have had anything to do with
the topic being discussed for all we know. There had been problems in
this church and that was one reason Paul had come there.
Which leads to me to the question is that a slippery slope to explain away scripture as inapplicable today but only applicable to the ancient place and time the scripture was originally presented. Thus, for any scripture one might disagree or find offensive, they can rationalize the scripture does not apply today but only back then.
Originally posted by moon1969All these writings must be read in context while using common sense, which
That is the explanation I receive from many Christians that 1 Corinthians 14:34-34 is not generally applicable to women today, but only in that particular church in that particular time and circumstances.
Which leads to me to the question is that a slippery slope to explain away scripture as inapplicable today but only applicable to the ancient place and ...[text shortened]... e or find offensive, they can rationalize the scripture does not apply today but only back then.
you apparently refuse to do.
Originally posted by moon1969I mean, what do you expect a church to do? Stick rigorously to every little command in the New Testament and risk losing membership?
That is the explanation I receive from many Christians that 1 Corinthians 14:34-34 is not generally applicable to women today, but only in that particular church in that particular time and circumstances.
Which leads to me to the question is that a slippery slope to explain away scripture as inapplicable today but only applicable to the ancient place and ...[text shortened]... e or find offensive, they can rationalize the scripture does not apply today but only back then.
If they told women to shut up while in church, people would leave the church in droves.
I only wish Christians could learn to ignore the anti-homosexual verses in the same way they ignore the sexist ones.
Originally posted by SwissGambitWould you become a Christian then?
I mean, what do you expect a church to do? Stick rigorously to every little command in the New Testament and risk losing membership?
If they told women to shut up while in church, people would leave the church in droves.
I only wish Christians could learn to ignore the anti-homosexual verses in the same way they ignore the sexist ones.
Female equality is presumed in the following passages of the Bible, of which Paul of course was familiar. A question is added for the doubter that these passages exhibited male - female equality:
1.) Genesis 1:27 - "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; MALE AND FEMALE He created them"
Why didn't Genesis just say only the MALE God created in His image ?
2.) Genesis 2:24 - "For this reason a man shall leave HIS FATHER AND HIS MOTHER, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh"
Why didn't Genesis just say that a man shall leave HIS FATHER without mentioning the mother ?
3.) Exodus 20:12 - "Honor YOUR FATHER AND YOUR MOTHER, that your days ma be prolonged in the land which the Lord your God gives you" (Compare 21:15; Deut. 5:16; 21:18-21; 27:16)
Why didn't the Scripture just say honor your FATHER without regard to the mother ?
4.) Leviticus 19:3 - "Every one of you shall reverence HIS MOTHER AND HIS FATHER" (Compare 20:9)
Why didn't the Bible just say everyone should reverence his FATHER with no regard for the MOTHER ?
5.) Proverbs 6:20 - "My son, observe the commandment of YOUR FATHER and do not forsake the teaching of YOUR MOTHER."
Why didn't the Bible just say observe the FATHER's teaching and disregard the teaching of the MOTHER ?
6.) Proverbs 19:26 - "He who assaults HIS FATHER and drives HIS MOTHER away is a shameful and disgraceful son."
Why didn't Proverbs just mention the shame and disgrace of driving away the FATHER only without regard to the MOTHER ?
7.) Proverbs 23:22 - "Listen to your FATHER who begot you, and do not despise YOUR MOTHER when she is old."
Why didn't the Old Testament simply mention the begetting father and ignore how the MOTHER is treated when old ?
8.) Proverbs 23:25 - "Let your FATHER AND YOUR MOTHER be glad, and let HER rejoice who gave birth to you."
Why didn't Proverbs only mention the gladness and rejoicing of the MAN, the FATHER ? Why didn't it ignore the feelings of the MOTHER ?
9.) Song of Songs 6:3 - "I am my beloverd's and my beloved is mine" (Compare 7:10)
Why didn't the Song of Songs only mention ownership one way - the woman belonging to the man solely ?
These passages bring out the equality of men and women intended by God His creation.
Originally posted by moon1969If you look at the context, these verses are talking about women speaking a message from God (i.e. prophesying). This is not to restrict a woman from saying anything, but rather to keep women from usurping the position that God has given to man (i.e. that of preaching to the congregation). This therefore matches with the other scripture mentioned that says a woman must wear a head covering when she speaks in church.
Does this only apply only to the Corinthians or to all women?
34 let the women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but let them be in subjection, as also saith the law.
35 And if they would learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home: for it is shameful for a woman to speak in the church.
1 Corinthians 14:34-35
Originally posted by SwissGambitEasily.
Heh, how is it possible to move away from an omnipresent being? 😵
God may be omnipresent but a man's heart is far from God.
You may be living under the same roof with your spouse but in heart and spirit be separated, distant, aloof, and cold.
Any more easy ones like that ?