16 Mar 05
Originally posted by DarfiusDoes the term 'righteous' in the above imperative modify the term 'judge' or the term 'judgment'? Are we to judge as righteous those judgments we come across, or are we to judge those judgments that are themselves righteous?
7:24 "Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment." John
Comments?
16 Mar 05
It means that only a Christian who is right in her or his walk with God has the right to judge. And this is only done through the discernment given from the Holy Spirit. Of course, we should not make judging a habit, since we all have to appear before the Judgement Seat of God, but at times it is necessary, so people know when they are doing wrong and can correct it.
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by DarfiusHow did you derive that interpretation from the imperative above? Also, could you answer my previous question? I'd love to comment on the imperative, but I need you to clarify the syntax for me.
It means that only a Christian who is right in her or his walk with God has the right to judge. And this is only done through the discernment given from the Holy Spirit. Of course, we should not make judging a habit, since we all have to appear before the Judgement Seat of God, but at times it is necessary, so people know when they are doing wrong and can correct it.
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by Darfiusthere is undestanding in what you just said both for the believer and the unbeliever.
It means that only a Christian who is right in her or his walk with God has the right to judge. And this is only done through the discernment given from the Holy Spirit. Of course, we should not make judging a habit, since we all have to appear before the Judgement Seat of God, but at times it is necessary, so people know when they are doing wrong and can correct it.
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by bbarrModify? It is commanding Christians to make judgements that are righteous.
Does the term 'righteous' in the above imperative modify the term 'judge' or the term 'judgment'? Are we to judge as righteous those judgments we come across, or are we to judge those judgments that are themselves righteous?
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by bbarrGood question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".
Does the term 'righteous' in the above imperative modify the term 'judge' or the term 'judgment'? Are we to judge as righteous those judgments we come across, or are we to judge those judgments that are themselves righteous?
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by DarfiusThat may be your interpretation of the imperative, and your interpretation may be correct, but your interpretation is not clearly indicated by the syntax of the imperative. The imperative does not say "judge righteously". It says "judge righteous judgment". Now, again, which term does 'righteous' modify? Does it modify 'judge' (the term on the left) or 'judgment' (the term on the right)?
Modify? It is commanding Christians to make judgements that are righteous.
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by darvlay22 This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. (Romans 3)
Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by bbarrAre you applying English language rules to Greek and Aramaic scripture translated to English?
That may be your interpretation of the imperative, and your interpretation may be correct, but your interpretation is not clearly indicated by the syntax of the imperative. The imperative does not say "judge righteously". It says "judge righteous judgment". Now, again, which term does 'righteous' modify? Does it modify 'judge' (the term on the left) or 'judgment' (the term on the right)?
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by darvlayLike you, I think it is unclear how Darfius' interpretation follows from the syntax of the imperative. Perhaps he is inferring that the imperative must claim something in the vicinity of his interpretation because there are other passages in the bible that suggest his interpretation. If so, he ought to have posted those imperatives for comment rather than this syntactically ambiguous imperative.
Good question, BBarr. The wording is ambiguous to me. I cannot conclude what exact action is being commanded by JC. I especially cannot see how Darfius interprets this verse as a free license to judge others "righteously".
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by DarfiusI am asking the question that I am asking. The imperative you provided is ambiguous in the manner I pointed out. It can be taken to express either of two propositions. Which proposition ought we take it to express? If you think the passage ought to be read as expressing the imperative 'judge righteously', then please provide the original text, so that I may determine for myself whether your interpretation is accurate.
Are you applying English language rules to Greek and Aramaic scripture translated to English?
16 Mar 05
Originally posted by Darfius😕
22 This [b]righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. (Romans 3)
[/b]
You need not clarify for me why it is you believe you are a righteous person.