Originally posted by FMFit depends on what they have consented to.
If he does demand it, even when she is unwilling, would you consider it to be rape.
I remember a rather amusing debate in the house of Lords or commons that i was following on radio 4, one of the Mps gave a speech in which he detailed a scenario whereby some one wife was initially unwilling but was persuaded with some kind words and eventually acquiesced to have sex with the words, 'i suppose so', does such an act in your opinion constitute a rape? the lady being unwilling?
04 Oct 15
2 edits
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI made it very clear that she has refused to have sex with me. And yes, I want to have sex with her despite her having the flu.
I have no idea what Mrs Outsider ( and believe me the long suffering lady has my every sympathy) has consented to. I would be more worried that you want to have sex with someone that has flu. seriously dude? really?
If I forced her to have sex with me, would that be rape?
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by robbie carrobieYou're dodging and deflecting. You don't want to debate the substance of what people are saying. And your catchphrases are starting to flow. You're rattled I think.
rattled? the only thing thats doing any rattling is you yah snake!
Originally posted by robbie carrobieBut 'all Christian wives have consented to sex even at times when they don't want sex' seems to me absolutely central to what you are claiming is the Christian principle you are putting forward, so you should clarify if it is not what you believe.
more vain attempts to make the debate personal, how banal and how ignored.
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by divegeesterThe only exit strategy robbie has on this topic is to pretend he was just being "jovial" all along and he didn't really mean all of the things he said.
Which one. Where you start calling people silly names, or where you use your hilarious catch-phrase "shad up a ya face"?
Or are you referring to something specifically in response to my direct question?
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by Rank outsiderIt could be construed as rape yes but again i have no idea what she may have consented to.
I made it very clear that she has refused to have sex with me. And yes, I want to have sex with her despite her having the flu.
If I forced her to have sex with me, would that be rape?
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by divegeesterThis one here
Which one. Where you start calling people silly names, or where you use your hilarious catch-phrase "shad up a ya face"?
Or are you referring to something specifically in response to my direct question?
This actually in retrospect is a good point. A Christian wife and husband have agreed relinquish authority over there own bodies, this is a Christian principle. Of course its not to be taken in isolation and like other principles have a bearing. If a husband abides by the principle to love and cherish his wife as he does his own flesh', then he will not demand the so called marital due when sh is either unwilling or unable to consent, for this would be unloving.
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by robbie carrobieAre you referring to some kind of legal agreement that the "contractual parties" have signed up to? I thought you were talking about "Christian marriage" and "Christian principles", and the none-existence of "marital rape".
Again i don't know it depends what the contractual parties have agreed to.
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by FMFwe know how you hate jovial fellows frolicking across cyber space, those gelid tentacles of yours must be itching to squeeze the humanity from them😵
The only exit strategy robbie has on this topic is to pretend he was just being "jovial" all along and he didn't really mean all of the things he said.