Is secular divorce banned by the Bible?

Is secular divorce banned by the Bible?

Spirituality

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F

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2 edits

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Of course it doesn't, you have your own morality.
Well, I find your attitude to divorce doctrinaire and little else. Your stance does not seem "moral" at all. It sounds like something you have taken from a book, and it sounds like the fact you have taken it from a book is more important to you than the physical violence or the marital rape we are ostensibly discussing.

What moral or virtuous outcome is there from not allowing a woman, who is victimized by a man in these sorts of ways, to divorce him? I get it that there is something written in your book which says something about "fornication" but fails to mention physical violence and marital rape, but the fact that it is written in a book, in and of itself, does not make adhering to it moral.

What is the good that is created by disallowing a beaten or raped woman from divorcing her tormentor, and marrying someone else?

rc

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Originally posted by FMF
Well, I find your attitude to divorce doctrinaire and little else. Your stance does not seem "moral" at all. It sounds like something you have taken from a book, and it sounds like the fact you have taken it from a book is more important to you than the physical violence or the marital rape we are ostensibly discussing.

What moral or virtuous outcome is ther ...[text shortened]... disallowing a beaten or raped woman from divorcing her tormentor, and marrying someone else?
its your morality, you justify it.

F

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
its your morality, you justify it.
Don't accept it if you don't want to. We all have to make our own way in this world. You say you took a look at some religious groups, shopped around a bit and finally chose the group and beliefs that you now profess. I would not have settled for what you have settled for, robbie.

Finding that a book insisted that divorcing a wife beater or marital rapist was "immoral", while it is "moral" to divorce in the case of infidelity, would cause me, as a free moral agent - just as you are, or claim to be - to doubt, and - as a matter of the same personal conscience that you often mention - to question the book's validity as an authority or arbiter of morality.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the Bible makes the argument that in the case of either physical abuse or negligence a Christian sister is free to separate
Can you provide scripture to support this please?

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the Bible makes the argument that in the case of either physical abuse or negligence a Christian sister is free to separate
Can you please define "physical abuse" and "negligence" (do you mean neglect?) within this contex?

rc

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Originally posted by divegeester
Can you please define "physical abuse" and "negligence" (do you mean neglect?) within this contex?
yes, but quite frankly, i cannot be bothered, I have given the Biblical stance, its good
enough for me.

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Originally posted by RBHILL
i would say yes.

would the couple still fell some guilt of having sex before marriage?
I perhaps flippantly answered about the couple having premarital sex, but I want to see if I understand your "yes" answer about the couple's civil marriage.

It seems to me that the Christian view on this is that a marriage exists when God deems it to exist. Under this view, so far it seems that two opposite-sex adults who enter into a civil marriage with the agreed intention that God will deem it to be a marriage, satisfy God's requirement. Basically they ask for God's blessing of their marriage. The required outward signs are minimal. In the extreme, the last two people in the world could marry with no one else around except God. (Same as the first two people.🙂)

As for these believers, it is not clear to me how far their belief in God may deviate from "correct" Christian beliefs about God, and still satisfy God's requirement. I suppose if the couple wants recognition of their marriage by members of a particular faith, they need to meet the requirements of that faith, and God is the judge of that faith.

But this way of saying it requires that they be sincere believers in God, so that non-believers' civil marriages are not marriages in the eyes of God and for that matter non-believers who do a church wedding aren't married in the eyes of God. Can that be right?

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes, but quite frankly, i cannot be bothered, I have given the Biblical stance, its good
enough for me.
It is revealling of your nature that you are willing to make claims but "can't be bothered" to substantiate them.

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Originally posted by divegeester
Can you provide scripture to support this please?
Bumb for robbie.

Just in case you "can't be bothered"...

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1 edit

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the Bible makes the argument that in the case of either physical abuse or negligence a Christian sister is free to separate
Originally posted by divegeester
Can you provide scripture to support this please?



Another bump for robbie

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09 Aug 12

I'm guessing this is your new strategy for avoiding questions you don't like. Interesting.

ka
The Axe man

Brisbane,QLD

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2 edits

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Of course it doesn't, you have your own morality.
..which is better than just having to accept the one already thought out for you?


(very classy 😛 )



edit: I just realized I have stumbelled into some sort of stand off technique from RC,(ignoring? ). Otherwise he'd be all over you on this subject, Dive!!

F

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10 Aug 12

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
its your morality, you justify it.
I asked you "What is the good that is created by disallowing a beaten or raped woman from divorcing her tormentor, and marrying someone else?"

Your answer was: "its your morality, you justify it."

But disallowing a beaten or raped woman from divorcing her tormentor and marrying someone else is your "morality", not mine.