Firstborn of all creation

Firstborn of all creation

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rc

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It has been asserted that Christ is not a created entity, could those who profess this perspective please explain the following scripture, Collossians 1:15, made with reference to Jesus Christ,

(Colossians 1:15) He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation

Its has been asserted that this is made with reference to Jesus pre-eminence, this raises some serious questions,

1. The term first-born is used in the Bible until this point almost thirty times (the first born of Pharaoh referring to Pharaohs son etc), why in all other instances is it a reference to progeny but here it is a reference to something else.

2. If as the verse indicates that Christ is of the creation, how are we to understand that he was not created?

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
It has been asserted that Christ is not a created entity, could those who profess this perspective please explain the following scripture, Collossians 1:15, made with reference to Jesus Christ,

(Colossians 1:15) He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation

Its has been asserted that this is made with reference to Jesus p ...[text shortened]... erse indicates that Christ is of the creation, how are we to understand that he was not created?
This thread is irrelevant, irrelevancies will be ignored.

rc

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Originally posted by divegeester
This thread is irrelevant, irrelevancies will be ignored.
The thread is relevant, you, suzzianne, jaywill and r j hinds claim that Jesus is God, you will explain the scripture in view of the fact that it states that Jesus was a created entity.

Misfit Queen

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Col 1:15

"Some people have tried to use this term "firstborn" to argue that Jesus was a created being and not the Creator. That is not true. "Firstborn" is used here in the sense of first in importance (see Rom 8:29). This is verified by the context of this verse (see Col 1:18) where Paul said Jesus was to have the preeminence in all things.

The Greek term for "first created" is "PROTOKTISIS," whereas the Greek word for "firstborn," used here, is "PROTOTOKOS." These are two entirely different words. It is significant that in this verse, the Apostle Paul deliberately avoided using the Greek term for "first created" and instead chose the Greek word for "firstborn." Jesus "is before all things, and by him all things consist" (Col 1:17).

In Bible days, the Jews understood the term "firstborn" to refer to position and rank. In other words, the firstborn (according to Jewish custom) was his father's heir. All that his father possessed was his. This term signifies that the Son is the "appointed heir of all things" (Heb 1:2). Taken in context, this passage clearly reveals that all things in heaven and earth were created by the Son and for the Son (Col 1:16-17). By virtue of this fact, the Son stands as Ruler, Creator, and Firstborn."

From http://www.awmi.net

Misfit Queen

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
The thread is relevant, you, suzzianne, jaywill and r j hinds claim that Jesus is God, you will explain the scripture in view of the fact that it states that Jesus was a created entity.
It does not state this.

Show some discernment, if for no one else's sake but your own.

rc

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Originally posted by Suzianne
Col 1:15

"Some people have tried to use this term "firstborn" to argue that Jesus was a created being and not the Creator. That is not true. "Firstborn" is used here in the sense of first in importance (see Rom 8:29). This is verified by the context of this verse (see Col 1:18) where Paul said Jesus was to have the preeminence in all things.

The Greek ...[text shortened]... rtue of this fact, the Son stands as Ruler, Creator, and Firstborn."

From http://www.awmi.net
you were not asked what the term for first born is, what you were actually asked was, is Jesus or is he not part of creation for Paul uses the term, firstborn OF all creation indicating that it would seem that Jesus is OF the creation, this is what you were actually asked, so we shall ask you again and see if you can answer it this time,

does the term first-born of all creation indicate that Jesus is part of the creation as indicated by the term, first-born OF all creation, that is a part of the creation.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
The thread is relevant, you, suzzianne, jaywill and r j hinds claim that Jesus is God, you will explain the scripture in view of the fact that it states that Jesus was a created entity.
This is all irrelevant.

Please start a thread about why some spurious Egyptian hieroglyph proves that one of your gods is an angel.

rc

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Originally posted by divegeester
This is all irrelevant.

Please start a thread about why some spurious Egyptian hieroglyph proves that one of your gods is an angel.
Its entirely relevant to those who are interested in accuracy and truth.

The Near Genius

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
you were not asked what the term for first born is, what you were actually asked was, is Jesus or is he not part of creation for Paul uses the term, firstborn OF all creation indicating that it would seem that Jesus is OF the creation, this is what you were actually asked, so we shall ask you again and see if you can answer it this time,

does the ...[text shortened]... e creation as indicated by the term, first-born OF all creation, that is a part of the creation.
I agree with suzianne. Obviously, He is not created because He created all things that was made from the beginning.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.

(John 1:1-3 NKJV)

For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist. And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in all things He may have the preeminence.

(Colossians 1:16-18 NKJV)

Obviously, the Creator and Maker of all things is exempted from the things that were created and made.

rc

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I agree with suzianne. Obviously, He is not created because He created all things that was made from the beginning.

[b]In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.


(John 1:1-3 NKJV)

For by ...[text shortened]... sly, the Creator and Maker of all things is exempted from the things that were created and made.
You were not asked about John 1:1, you were asked about Colossians 1:15 which states that Jesus is the first-born OF all creation, therefore i will ask you again, the verse states that Jesus is the first-born OF all creation, that is not distinct from it, how is it possible to be OF the creation as the verse states and not to be a created entity? for either the verse is wrong when it states that Jesus is OF the creation, that is a part OF creation or your understanding is incorrect, so please explain the term OF the creation.

Your irrelevant texts and remarks will be ignored as unworthy of serious comment.

The Near Genius

Fort Gordon

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
You were not asked about John 1:1, you were asked about Colossians 1:15 which states that Jesus is the first-born OF all creation, therefore i will ask you again, the verse states that Jesus is the first-born OF all creation, that is not distinct from it, how is it possible to be OF the creation as the verse states and not to be a created entity? for ...[text shortened]... e creation.

Your irrelevant texts and remarks will be ignored as unworthy of serious comment.
Besides quoting John 1:1-3, I also quoted the the verses after your quoted verse and it explains it to you. Your problem in understanding is that you always want to take one verse out of the context.

Texasman

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Originally posted by RJHinds
Besides quoting John 1:1-3, I also quoted the the verses after your quoted verse and it explains it to you. Your problem in understanding is that you always want to take one verse out of the context.
Still not answering the scriptures....

The Near Genius

Fort Gordon

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Originally posted by galveston75
Still not answering the scriptures....
I wrote:
"Obviously, the Creator and Maker of all things is exempted from the things that were created and made."

That is your answer.

Texasman

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I wrote:
"Obviously, the Creator and Maker of all things is exempted from the things that were created and made."

That is your answer.
Yep you are right. But that does not apply to Jesus as he himself said: "I am the FIRST of all creation".
But don't waist your time with a responce as you'll make the same excuses and weak explinations you always have to make that statement by Jesus a lie.

When one comes right out and calls the son of God a lier is pretty serious stuff.

The Near Genius

Fort Gordon

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Originally posted by galveston75
Yep you are right. But that does not apply to Jesus as he himself said: "I am the FIRST of all creation".
But don't waist your time with a responce as you'll make the same excuses and weak explinations you always have to make that statement by Jesus a lie.

When one comes right out and calls the son of God a lier is pretty serious stuff.
Yes it does. Because the following is also said about Jesue:

For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist. And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in all things He may have the preeminence.

(Colossians 1:16-18 NKJV)

Notice it says "that in all things He may have the preeminence."

Do you know what "preeminence" means?