Does 0.999999999........ = 1?

Does 0.999999999........ = 1?

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r
CHAOS GHOST!!!

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08 Dec 04

Originally posted by Gambitzoid
that was the most horrible logic i ever saw, you suck at math

.333333333333 = y (ok, fine)

then 3.33333333333 = 10y (still fine, okay)

and 3 = 3y WTF ARE YOU TALKING ABOUT, YOU JUST SAID y=.333...???

so 3y= 1!!!!! WHAT ARE YOU SMOKING????

Clearly .333333 = 1 ACTUALLY THEY ARENT EQUAL AT ALL!!!!

and yes .999999 repeating does equal 1
I believe this was already brought to KINGSI's attention, and I'm sure he has modified his reasoning accordingly; no need to shout.

o
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15 Dec 04

Originally posted by opsoccergurl11
well, by algebra,

if .999999=x, then
9.999999=10x
and 9=9x after you subtract the two equations
when you divide by 9, you get 1=x

so, i just stated x=.99999999 and x=1 by just modifying the original equation
The number of 9s needed to adequately represent multiplying x by 10 is NOT the same as the number of 9s needed to adequately represent subtraction of x.

o
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1 edit

While I'm at it, converging to 1 and equalling 1 are not, and never will be, the same thing. Limits are approached, but never reached.

I've seen at LEAST half a dozen "proofs" throwing around equals signs when they're not warranted. The limit of an infinite series may equal 1, or whatever number, but that is not the same as being able to say the series itself equals that number. God knows my maths lecturer jumped on anyone who didn't say "THE LIMIT OF... equals".

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1 edit

Originally posted by Siskin
Theorem: Between any two rational numbers there are infinitely many more rational numbers.

Proof: Let a and b be different rational numbers, with a<b. Then (a+b)/2 is also a rational number, and between a and b.
Suppose that (strictly) ...[text shortened]... aren't any rational numbers between them, they must be the same.
[Ignore this one please, pressed the wrong button!] 😳

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15 Dec 04

Originally posted by AThousandYoung
Oops.

[b]However the lim(n=>infinity) [1 - 10^(-n)] = 0.


This should read

However the lim(n=>infinity) [10^(-n)] = 0.[/b]
You cannot just throw limits out of the equation when it suits you, you know!

T
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15 Dec 04

Originally posted by orfeo
The number of 9s needed to adequately represent multiplying x by 10 is NOT the same as the number of 9s needed to adequately represent subtraction of x.
What are you doing talking about a number of 9's? The row of 9's is INFINITE, wich means that there are more 9's then any number you can think of. Infinity is NOT a number!

Multiplying x = 0.999... by 10 changes NOTHING about the row of 9's behind the decimal point. There still is an INFINITE row of 9's there.
So stating 10x-x = 9 is absolutely true!

x = lim 1 - 1/10^n for n-&gt;infinity THIS STATEMENT IS TRUE!

lim 1- 1/10^n = 1- lim 1/10^n for n-&gt;infinity THIS STATEMENT IS TRUE!

lim 1/10^n = 0 for n-&gt;infinity THIS STATEMENT IS TRUE!

Putting everything in a row we get x=1

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15 Dec 04

Originally posted by Gambitzoid
here what i think is the absolute final proof...

,99... can be rewritten as:

[9/(10^1) + 9/(10^2) + 9/(10^3) + ... + 9/(10^n-1) + 9/10^n]

where n APPROACHES infinity.

The LIMIT of .999... as n approaches infinity is 1.

HOWEVER!!! n never can actually reach infinity because a number n+1 can always be found... so while .999 becomes infinitesimally close to 1, it never can actually equal 1.
HOORAY!

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1 edit

Originally posted by TheMaster37
What are you doing talking about a number of 9's? The row of 9's is INFINITE, wich means that there are more 9's then any number you can think of. Infinity is NOT a number!

Multiplying x = 0.999... by 10 changes NOTHING about the ...[text shortened]... THIS STATEMENT IS TRUE!

Putting everything in a row we get x=1
Yes, because you defined x as the limit. 0.99999 recurring isn't the limit. 1 is. 0.9999 recurring is the ACTUAL SUM.

T
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15 Dec 04

let me refrase it then:

0.999... = lim 1 - 1/10^n for n-&gt;infinity what is it that you don't like about this? This is a simple and true statement.

If you still do not believe that 0.999... = 1 I suggest you read several of my previous post in this thread. I've given a simple proof, only requiring the rules of calculation in Standard Analasis.

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15 Dec 04

Originally posted by TheMaster37
let me refrase it then:

0.999... = lim 1 - 1/10^n for n->infinity what is it that you don't like about this? This is a simple and true statement.

If you still do not believe that 0.999... = 1 I suggest you read several of my previous post in this thread. I've given a simple proof, only requiring the rules of calculation in Standard Analasis.
No it isn't. Replace the lim with a sum (sigma).

Some of your other posts are interesting and I will have to think about them, but there are plenty of equations on here indicating that 0.999... is the SUM of an infinite series, and it's quite easy to understand when you start adding terms - 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 etc.. But you cannot tell me, no matter how hard you try, that is the same as the LIMIT of the series. Series approach but DO NOT REACH their limits.

Other issue: My very post was wrong in its expression, I agree. You're right, multiplying an infinite number of 9s after the decimal point won't affect how many 9s there are. But at the same time, how do you justify subtracting infinite 9s from infinite 9s and ending up with nothing after the decimal point?

In other words I'm not convinced that infinity minus infinity equals zero, why doesn't it equal infinity?

over your head

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Series and functions can reach their limits.
if the lim as x-&gt;a of f(x) = f(a) then the function f is said to be continuous at a.

Now With Added BA

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16 Dec 04

Originally posted by orfeo
Yes, because you defined x as the limit. 0.99999 recurring isn't the limit. 1 is. 0.9999 recurring is the ACTUAL SUM.
I'm confused - are you saying that there's something deeply wrong with calling 0.999... a number? If you'd rather not represent real numbers by rational Cauchy sequences, which 0.999... is an example of, that's fair enough, but how would you rather represent them? Real numbers are a construct like any other, so we can pick any representation we like that has the required algebraic and analytical properties. Here's a Dedekind cut version:
Let X = {x in Q: x &lt; 1 - 10^-n for some n}
Let Y = {x in Q: x &lt; 1}

Then 'the limit of' 0.999... is (X,Q\X) and 1 is (Y,Q\Y). Now our question 'does 0.999... = 1?' becomes 'does X = Y?' It really doesn't make a lot of difference, though.

G

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16 Dec 04

Originally posted by orfeo
HOORAY!
actually, there's no hooray because i made a mistake... orfeo is wrong


i said that .999.... can be represented as

[9/(10^1) + 9/(10^2) + 9/(10^3) + ... + 9/(10^n-1) + 9/10^n]
^ ^ ^
^ ^ ^
^ ^ ^
^ ^ ^
| | |
THAT IS WRONG





because there is another +9/10^(n+1) and then add 9/10^(n+2) ad infinitum. .99999... is not the funtion i described above but the limit of the function above as n-&gt;inf which is 1.


.9999...=1
Look in any textbook!!!!

T

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17 Dec 04
2 edits

Originally posted by iamatiger
like opssoccergurl said:

0.99999... = x
multiply by 10
9.99999... = 10x
If it is to be proven that 0.9999... = 1, don't you think it is rather begging the question to blithely assume that
0.99999... = x implies 9.99999... = 10x?

G

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17 Dec 04

Originally posted by THUDandBLUNDER
If it is to be proven that 0.9999... = 1, don't you think it is rather begging the question to blithely assume that
0.99999... = x implies 9.99999... = 10x?
what is X*10?


10X, wow; just amazing!












now, what is .999999999... * 10?



thats right, 9.999999....


so where is the assumption?