Originally posted by divegeesterBlah blah blah blah, you came knowing nothing and you will leave as ignorant. You dont know anything and your opinions are simply a projection of your ignorance now exposed and apparent for all to gaze upon in astonishment and contrary to your falsehood I can and did explain its presence. In English a predicate noun has the indefinite article, that is why we say,
Isn't your bible written in English then?
Your whole gambit here is related to the deity and soverentiy of Jesus Christ isn't it. Well your squalid little religious group changed the translation and put in an "a" in English to infer that Jesus was a god not the God. You lot put it in and you can explain its presence.
Carry on.
John is a doctor
The Duke is a Ghost
Divegeester is a slaphead etc etc
a predicate noun in English believe it or not has an indefinite article.
We dont say
Rudolf is dog
Sylvester is cat
Word is God
Do we Juicer? Nooooooo we put in an indefinite article for it to make sense, don't we Juicester!
FMF is a musician
Sonhouse was a songwriter
The word was a god.
So good so logical, so accurate and so righteous!
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05 Sep 16
Originally posted by robbie carrobieExplain why your translation has the indefinite artle "a" God in John 1:1?
Blah blah blah blah, you came knowing nothing and you will leave as ignorant. You dont know anything and your opinions are simply a projection of your ignorance now exposed and apparent for all to gaze upon in astonishment.
Either put up or shut up with the insults and ad hominem blithering.
Originally posted by divegeesterI just did, suck it up Juiced Jeester, you cant touch this,
Explain why your translation has the indefinite artle "a" God in John 1:1?
Either put up or shut up with the insults and ad hominem blithering.
na na na na, can't touch this, robbie time! can't touch this!
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Originally posted by robbie carrobieBut it doesn't in Greek.
a predicate noun in English believe it or not has an indefinite article.
And as you gleefully pointed out earlier "one does not translate in a lexical fashion".
And yet the the JWs chose to put the "a" in.
Interesting.
05 Sep 16
Originally posted by divegeesterLook Jeester Greek is not English, I don't know how to tell you this, but its not. English has an indefinte article Greek does not, the way Greek expresses the indefinite article is to leave out the definite article, this is not the case with English because believe it or not English is not Greek, I know you might find the idea strange, but its not that difficult a concept, just remember Greek is not English, it has its own idom and you will do ok.
But it doesn't in Greek.
And as you gleefully pointed out earlier "one does not translate in a lexical fashion".
And yet the the JWs chose to put the "a" in.
Interesting.
05 Sep 16
Originally posted by divegeesterthis has been explained to you countless times, i suggest you ask someone for help, i have done all i can.
Riddle me these:
1. Why is there a space between Lyons and Spakowski?
2. Why is there an "a" (was "a" god) in the NWT translation of Jn 1:1
😉
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Originally posted by robbie carrobie1. Why is there a space between Lyons and Spakowski?
Look Jeester Greek is not English, I don't know how to tell you this, but its not. English has an indefinte article Greek does not, the way Greek expresses the indefinite article is to leave out the definite article, this is not the case with English because believe it or not English is not Greek, I know you might find the idea strange, but its not ...[text shortened]... difficult a concept, just remember Greek is not English, it has its own idom and you will do ok.
2. Why is there an "a" (was "a" god) in the NWT translation of Jn 1:1