Proper Christian living in a multi-religious context

Proper Christian living in a multi-religious context

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rc

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Originally posted by Conrau K
Well, I can be patient. When you decide to use it, maybe then post.
i have been using my powers of reason throughout, you are content to rehash fourth century dogma, when you decide to look at the text objectively, then you may have recourse to your own powers of reason.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
i have been using my powers of reason throughout, you are content to rehash fourth century dogma, when you decide to look at the text objectively, then you may have recourse to your own powers of reason.
Sure, Robbie, use your powers of reason. I have never asked you to put aside your intellect. I have asked you to be intellectually honest. A few posts ago I put forward six reasons why your interpretation makes no sense; you did not answer them. I at least want you to explain how you know that when Eusebius wrote 'paschal feast' you know that he means 'Lord's Supper' rather than, as it is traditionally understood, 'Easter'. If your conclusion is based on reason, such an answer should be persuasive to me as well.

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I think it is quite obvious that Eusebius meant Easter. Eusebius was writing during the time of the Council of Nicaea which wrote this:

We further proclaim to you the good news of the agreement concerning the holy Easter, that this particular also has through your prayers been rightly settled; so that all our brethren in the East who formerly followed the custom of the Jews are henceforth to celebrate the said most sacred feast of Easter at the same time with the Romans and yourselves and all those who have observed Easter from the beginning.


http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/3801.htm

Clearly, the quartodecimans disputed not the timing of the Lord's supper but the paschal commemoration, otherwise known as Easter or the pascha.

rc

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Originally posted by Conrau K
Sure, Robbie, use your powers of reason. I have never asked you to put aside your intellect. I have asked you to be intellectually honest. A few posts ago I put forward six reasons why your interpretation makes no sense; you did not answer them. I at least want you to explain how you know that when Eusebius wrote 'paschal feast' you know that he means 'Lord ...[text shortened]... If your conclusion is based on reason, such an answer should be persuasive to me as well.
it is my evaluation Conrau, i do not expect you to agree with it, it has persuaded no one but me., nor can it. i have stated time and again why i feel the text cannot mean that the Asiatic church celebrated the lords evening meal, the Eucharist as you term it every day, i really dont want to have to do it again. if that is dishonesty to you, then so be it, that is your evaluation, as for me, well, i have a clean conscience in that i stated what was evident to me.

rc

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In obedience to this Scriptural mandate, true Christians held this observance 9lords evening meal) every year on the 14th of Nisan. However, in time, people also began to celebrate Jesus resurrection. The New Encyclopædia Britannica explains that the [b]“earliest Christians celebrated the Lords Passover at the same time as the Jews, during the night of the first (paschal) full Moon of the first month of spring (Nisan 14-15). By the middle of the 2nd century, most churches had transferred this celebration to the Sunday after the Jewish feast.”[/b]

The book Seasonal Feasts and Festivals says: “It was apparently not until towards the end of the fourth century in Jerusalem that Good Friday and Easter Day were kept as separate commemorations.”

Some scholars believe that because of the growing enmity between professed Christians and the Jews, some leaders of Christendom did not want their most important holiday to correspond exactly in date with the most important Jewish holiday. This attitude led to a change. In time most of Christendom began to celebrate the resurrection of Jesus on the first Sunday after the full moon that follows the spring equinox and made this its most important religious celebration. In effect they downgraded to a lower position the celebration of Jesus’ death.

What does the Bible have to say about Easter? Of course, the Scriptures give ample testimony to the fact that Jesus was resurrected. The resurrection of Christ is a basic doctrine of true Christianity. The apostle Paul clearly believed this. He said: “If Christ has not been raised up, our preaching is certainly in vain, and our faith is in vain. Further, if Christ has not been raised up, your faith is useless; you are yet in your sins.”—1 Corinthians 15:14, 17.

Nonetheless, nowhere does the Bible even hint at an annual celebration of Jesus resurrection. The historian Socrates Scholasticus admitted: “The Saviour and his apostles have enjoined us by no law to keep this feast: nor in the New Testament are we threatened with any penalty, punishment, or curse for the neglect of it.”

More recently The Christian Century magazine stated in an article on Easter: ‘Early Christians began celebrating the resurrection in the second century.’ Hence, Easter was introduced well after the death of all the apostles and after the Bible was completed.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobieIn obedience to this Scriptural mandate, true Christians held this observance 9lords evening meal) every year on the 14th of Nisan. However, in time, people also began to celebrate Jesus resurrection. The New Encyclopædia Britannica explains that the [b]“earliest Christians celebrated the Lords Passover at the same time as the Jews, during the nig r was introduced well after the death of all the apostles and after the Bible was completed.[/b]
Sure, you may disagree about whether it is right to celebrate the Resurrection. Clearly the quartodecimans agreed that the feast should not be celebrated on resurrection Sunday but according to the old Jewish calendar. Nothing in this article however suggests that quartodecimans only celebrated the Lord's supper on one day. The issue is about the feast not the Lord's supper, as the Synodial letter of the Council of Nicaea indicates.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
it is my evaluation Conrau, i do not expect you to agree with it, it has persuaded no one but me., nor can it. i have stated time and again why i feel the text cannot mean that the Asiatic church celebrated the lords evening meal, the Eucharist as you term it every day, i really dont want to have to do it again. if that is dishonesty to you, then s ...[text shortened]... evaluation, as for me, well, i have a clean conscience in that i stated what was evident to me.
Now you are just playing with words. There is a difference between 'the Lord's evening meal' and 'the Lord's feast'. Eusebius does not say that the issue concerned the former. A feast is not a meal. It is clear that the Asiatic church did celebrate the Eucharist outside the pascha because Polycarp quite happily celebrated it and there is no suggestion of force or compulsion. I can very easily see if other major quartodecimans, Melito and Polycrates for example, celebrated the Eucharist.

rc

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Originally posted by Conrau K
Now you are just playing with words. There is a difference between 'the Lord's evening meal' and 'the Lord's feast'. Eusebius does not say that the issue concerned the former. A feast is not a meal. It is clear that the Asiatic church did celebrate the Eucharist outside the pascha because Polycarp quite happily celebrated it and there is no suggestion of fo ...[text shortened]... f other major quartodecimans, Melito and Polycrates for example, celebrated the Eucharist.
he did not quite happily celebrate it, now you are being silly, it was a token gesture, others of a more sensitive conscience refrained, also you will note the above reference to the new encyclopaedia Britannica, not a Jehovahs witness publication, which also states that the early christians celebrated the lords evening meal on the day of the Jewish passover.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
he did not quite happily celebrate it, now you are being silly, it was a token gesture, others of a more sensitive conscience refrained, also you will note the above reference to the new encyclopaedia Britannica, not a Jehovahs witness publication, which also states that the early christians celebrated the lords evening meal on the day of the Jewish passover.
The Britannica does not mention the 'Lord's evening meal', only you do. You are making stuff up. All the Britannica says is that this issue concerned the date of the Lord's passover. I suspect that if the full article were posted, there would be a mention of Easter just like all the every other online encyclopedia.

Again, I find it hard to imagine that Eusebius would write 'Pope Sixtus could not persuade Polycarp and the controversy was not ended' if the issue were about the Lord's supper and Polycarp had really acceded to celebrate the Eucharist. I have no idea why you give so much weight to Polycarp anyway. He believed in an ordained ministry of bishops, priests and deacons which he claimed was taught by the apostle John. Yet do the JWs have that?

rc

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Originally posted by Conrau K
The Britannica does not mention the 'Lord's evening meal', only you do. You are making stuff up. All the Britannica says is that this issue concerned the date of the Lord's passover. I suspect that if the full article were posted, there would be a mention of Easter just like all the every other online encyclopedia.

Again, I find it hard to imagine that ts and deacons which he claimed was taught by the apostle John. Yet do the JWs have that?
what are the chances of this fact percolating into the depths of your psyche and bestirring a mechanism of understanding? remote? the lords evening meal, is as i have been saying for the past ten thousand posts, the lords passover. why you cannot understand this simple statement i do not know. i think it must have something to do with lack of spiritual comprehension, you are so besotted with ancient reasoning that your objectivity and thus your power to reason is askew. Paul states that Christ is our passover, it was not a celebration of the Jewish passover, it was a celebration of the Lords passover, or , in plain terms, the lords evening meal. your main objection to this is of course that it totally corroborates what i have been saying and leaves you in a somewhat embarrassing position. as for polycarp, he is of interest to us because he corroborates our teaching and practice, at least in this instance, lets be quite honest. Also i myself am not averse to early church history, although i make no claim to be erudite, it is of great interest to me as is most history. Yes even the history of the Catholic church, stained and tarnished as it is!

my wife was a Catholic, and admired the catholic church in her own country very much (Pakistan), for their welfare works are second to none! they provide education and hospital facilities. On more than one occasion, when she was estranged from her family the nuns would take her in and she would do a little menial work for her keep. She loved those nuns very much, they were very caring to say the least, quite different from the ones in the U.K i hasten to add.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
what are the chances of this fact percolating into the depths of your psyche and bestirring a mechanism of understanding? remote? the lords evening meal, is as i have been saying for the past ten thousand posts, the lords passover. why you cannot understand this simple statement i do not know. i think it must have something to do with lack of spi ...[text shortened]... hey were very caring to say the least, quite different from the ones in the U.K i hasten to add.
the lords evening meal, is as i have been saying for the past ten thousand posts, the lords passover. why you cannot understand this simple statement i do not know.

I know that is what you think. The question remains, how do you know that is what Eusebius thought?

Paul states that Christ is our passover, it was not a celebration of the Jewish passover, it was a celebration of the Lords passover, or , in plain terms, the lords evening meal.

Yes, I know. Everyone agrees with that. What is the question is whether the feast day of the passover is the same as the Lord's supper. I am not aware of any reputable source ever claiming that Eusebius believed them to be the same. I have only ever heard you believe it.

The fact is quite clear that the Passover feast is different to the Lord's supper. It is clear because St Justin the Martyr (a contemporary of Polycarp who would have known him in Rome) pointed to a universal practice of it each Sunday. It is quite clear because the canons of the Council of Nicaea, of which Eusebius was a father], say that the quartodecimans argued about the date of Easter. There is no mention of the Lord's supper.

Again, the onus is on you to prove that Eusebius meant that the Lord's supper and the paschal feast were the same thing. You have to do some historical research.

rc

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then my dear Conrau, you must take it upon trust, from one whose qualification issues forth from God 🙂 actually Conrau, almost every reference that i have researched on line equates the lords passover with the lords evening meal, which seems quite convincing, given the similar points of reference, what else could it be? it certainly cannot be Easter, for there is no mandate given and therefore none would have been handed down by the apostles.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
then my dear Conrau, you must take it upon trust, from one whose qualification issues forth from God 🙂
Don't give me that crap. The dispute is about what Eusebius meant, not God. What did Eusebius mean when he wrote that 'feast of the Saviour's passover'? You seem to think that it must have meant the Lord's supper. There is absolutely no evidence in favour of that and the canon of the Council of Nicaea clearly refutes it.

almost every reference that i have researched on line equates the lords passover with the lords evening meal, which seems quite convincing, given the similar points of reference, what else could it be? it certainly cannot be Easter, for there is no mandate given and therefore none would have been handed down by the apostles.

Interesting. None of the articles you posted suggested that the feast of the Passover had any connection with the Lord's supper. I am perplexed. Every article I have quotes indicates that the matter was about Easter. How more obvious can it be? THE LETTER OF THE COUNCIL OF NICAEA CLEARLY SAYS IT WAS ABOUT EASTER:

so that all our brethren in the East who formerly followed the custom of the Jews are henceforth to celebrate the said most sacred feast of Easter at the same time with the Romans and yourselves and all those who have observed Easter from the beginning.

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Another major point is that Eusebius says that the quartodecimans did not have the apostolic tradition, as he wrote:

A question of no small importance arose at that time [A.D. 190]. For the parishes of all Asia . . . held that the fourteenth day of the moon, on which day the Jews were commanded to sacrifice the lamb, should be observed as the feast of the Savior's Passover. . . . But it was not the custom of the churches in the rest of the world to end it at this time, as they observed the practice which, from Apostolic Tradition, has prevailed to the present time, of terminating the fast [of Lent] on no other day than on that of the Resurrection of our Savior.


Eusebius says that the apostolic tradition actually lay with Pope Sixtus, not St Polycarp, and that it was the norm for the feast to be celebrated on Sunday not on the day of the Jewish passover. The other compelling point is that if the issue were about the Lord's supper and the Romans clearly celebrated this every Sunday, why would they ask that it be moved onto to the one Sunday?

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You quoted Socrates Scholasticus above and so I have furrowed through his work to see his comments on the quartodecimans. If Robbie really regards Socrates as an authority, then this extract should be very compelling:

In Asia Minor most people kept the fourteenth day of the moon, disregarding the sabbath: yet they never separated from those who did otherwise, until Victor, bishop of Rome, influenced by too ardent a zeal, fulminated a sentence of excommunication against the Quartodecimans in Asia. Wherefore also Irenæus, bishop of Lyons in France, severely censured Victor by letter for his immoderate heat; telling him that although the ancients differed in their celebration of Easter, they did not desist from intercommunion. Also that Polycarp, bishop of Smyrna, who afterwards suffered martyrdom under Gordian, continued to communicate with Anicetus bishop of Rome, although he himself, according to the usage of his native Smyrna, kept Easter on the fourteenth day of the moon, as Eusebius attests in the fifth book of his Ecclesiastical History. While therefore some in Asia Minor observed the day above-mentioned, others in the East kept that feast on the sabbath indeed, but differed as regards the month. The former thought the Jews should be followed, though they were not exact: the latter kept Easter after the equinox, refusing to celebrate with the Jews; 'for,' said they, 'it ought to be celebrated when the sun is in Aries, in the month called Xanthicus by the Antiochians, and April by the Romans.' In this practice, they averred, they conformed not to the modern Jews, who are mistaken in almost everything, but to the ancients, and to Josephus according to what he has written in the third book of his Jewish Antiquities. Thus these people were at issue among themselves. But all other Christians in the Western parts, and as far as the ocean itself, are found to have celebrated Easter after the equinox, from a very ancient tradition.


http://newadvent.org/fathers/26015.htm

But for Robbie, everything must be wrong or an imaginative concoction by sinister Roman Catholics. Eusebius had to have meant 'Lord's supper', even though the Council of Nicaea and the writings of Socrates indicate it was about the Pascha (in English, Easter.)