John 1:1

John 1:1

Spirituality

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
1808 “and the word was a god” The New Testament, in An
Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s
New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.

1864 “and a god was the Word” - The Emphatic Diaglott (J21,
interlinear reading), by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London.

1935 “and the Word was divine” The Bible—An Am ...[text shortened]... “and a god was the Logos” Das Evangelium nach
Johannes,by Jürgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany.

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Originally posted by roigam
Do your own homework.
You will benefit more.
Back up your own words it will be easier to believe anything you say.

r

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17 Jan 17

Originally posted by KellyJay
Back up your own words it will be easier to believe anything you say.
slouch.

r

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19 Jan 17

I gave you the verses.
It's up to you to disprove them.

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Originally posted by roigam
I gave you the verses.
It's up to you to disprove them.
The verses I have read has Word being both with and being God holding two places in
the same sentence just like someone saying my Lord and my God.

John 1King James Version (KJV)
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

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Originally posted by roigam
slouch.
Lowering your self to name calling?
I'm not going to search out what you say to back up your point, that is on you not me.

r

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Originally posted by KellyJay
The verses I have read has Word being both with and being God holding two places in
the same sentence just like someone saying my Lord and my God.

John 1King James Version (KJV)
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Did you perchance notice the word.....WITH.....God indicating two entities?
That is Jesus, the Word, God's spokesman or representative, and God Himself.
Maybe English is not your mother tongue.
I can understand that.

Also, if you examine the god applied to Jesus in Greek, It means having divine qualities.
It does not translate as The God which refers to Jehovah God, our Creator.
The same Greek word, theos, is found at 2cor 4:4 refering to Satan.
So, logically, if theos makes Jesus a part of a trinity then it makes Satan also a part of that trinity. I don't believe that, do you?
Also, John 1:1 has no mention of a Holy Spirit. So it is not speaking of a trinity at all.

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Originally posted by roigam
Did you perchance notice the word.....WITH.....God indicating two entities?
That is Jesus, the Word, God's spokesman or representative, and God Himself.
Maybe English is not your mother tongue.
I can understand that.

Also, if you examine the god applied to Jesus in Greek, It means having divine qualities.
It does not translate as The God which refers t ...[text shortened]... part of a trinity then it makes Satan also a part of that trinity. I don't believ that, do you?
Oh no I am fully aware of that word. God showing Himself to us as a man so we can know Him. The Word made flesh, the only begotten, Christ in the flesh, the perfect representation of God the Father, the Son of God.

r

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1 edit

Originally posted by KellyJay
Oh no I am fully aware of that word. God showing Himself to us as a man so we can know Him. The Word made flesh, the only begotten, Christ in the flesh, the perfect representation of God the Father, the Son of God.
You do realize that a representation of something is not the thing in itself, don't you?

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Originally posted by roigam
You do realize that a representation of something is not the thing in itself, don't you?
You realize I believe that Jesus is the Word of God made flesh and you denying that only
shows you do not know Him.

r

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11 Feb 17

Originally posted by KellyJay
You realize I believe that Jesus is the Word of God made flesh and you denying that only
shows you do not know Him.
back to you.

R
Acts 13:48

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I know I'm a little late on this but in the King James version God is capitalized in both spots.

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Originally posted by roigam
You do realize that a representation of something is not the thing in itself, don't you?
I know that we needed a representation that we could understand. Which is why the Word of God became the Son of man.

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Originally posted by RBHILL
I know I'm a little late on this but in the King James version God is capitalized in both spots.
With good reason!

r

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11 Feb 17

Originally posted by KellyJay
With good reason!
I'm not saying anything about the political influence behind the archaic KJV,
but if we love God and His Son, isn't it proper to show respect by capitalizing
Word to show that respect for God.
That capital does not change Jesus' standing as God's Representative.