Is our modern Bible complete?

Is our modern Bible complete?

Spirituality

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Kali

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In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.

For Christ to say they dont know the scripture, it must mean that such a teaching is contained in the scriptures of that time.

Can't win a game of

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One thing I do remember is that the Sadducees did not believe in the resurrection of the dead. I'm wondering if this was why they asked the question in the first place.



Manny

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The Axe man

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1 edit

Originally posted by Rajk999
In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.

For Christ to say they dont know the scripture, it must mean that such a teaching is contained in the scriptures of that time.
What would the scriptures of christs' time be? This is something that has eluded my criousity over the years. Does anyone have any idea?

Z

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26 Oct 09

Originally posted by Rajk999
In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.

For Christ to say they dont know the scripture, it must mean that such a teaching is contained in the scriptures of that time.
and maybe the other scriptures mention nothing of this issue.

i wouldn't worry too much about these things. simply get the bigger picture and move on.

Kali

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Originally posted by Zahlanzi
and maybe the other scriptures mention nothing of this issue.

i wouldn't worry too much about these things. simply get the bigger picture and move on.
I have the big picture. Thats why I am moving on .. 🙂

Kali

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Originally posted by karoly aczel
What would the scriptures of christs' time be? This is something that has eluded my criousity over the years. Does anyone have any idea?
I think its the Septuagint or something similar. Wiki has an article on it, and its does appear to have many books which are left out of our OT.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Septuagint

Z

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Originally posted by Rajk999
I have the big picture. Thats why I am moving on .. 🙂
then what is this thread about?

j

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2 edits

Originally posted by Rajk999
In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.

For Christ to say they dont know the scripture, it must mean that such a teaching is contained in the scriptures of that time.
==============================
In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.
=========================================


That's an interesting question.

But I would look carefully at the passage. He said that they did not know the Scritpures or the power of God. Some of their ignorance was because of not knowing the Scripture. Some of their ignorance was because of not knowing the power of God.

Now which kind of ignorance was he refering to, (or if both), when He refered them to the nature of men and women in the resurrection ?

It could be that He was scolding them for not knowing a particular truth in the Old Testament that would have informed them of this.

It also could conceivably be that they did not appreciate "the power of God" to maintain a world in which the saved no longer marry and reproduce.

"You err, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of God. For in the resurrection they neither marry or are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven." (vs.29,30)

At the moment I cannot think of passage in the OT about absence of marriage in the resurrection. There is not that much about the resurrection.

In the passage Christ's way of expounding the Scripture is surprising.

'But concerning the reusrrection of the dead, have you not read that which was spoken to you by God, saying,

"I am the God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob"? He is not the God of the dead, but of the living.' (vs.31,32)


He drew their attention not to an event in the future but to God Himself now. He is the God of the living. The God of resurrection is now and is the God of the living. Of course this strongly implies that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob would be resurrected. Abraham had two wives - Sarah and Keturah. It did not stop God from being the God of resurrection, the God of the living.

Jesus expounded the Scriptures not just according to the letter, but according to the life and power implied within them.

F

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Originally posted by Rajk999
Is our modern Bible complete?
I would rather ask:
"Is our complete bible modern?"

I think it's obsolete, and has been that for a numerous of centruies.

Walk your Faith

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26 Oct 09

Originally posted by Rajk999
In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.

For Christ to say they dont know the scripture, it must mean that such a teaching is contained in the scriptures of that time.
Matt

28 In the resurrection therefore whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.

29 But Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.

30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as angels in heaven.

I believe according to Jesus' answer it was the Sadducees that were suggesting
something not in scripture, which was that there was marriage in heaven between
men and women.
Kelly

Kali

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Originally posted by jaywill
[b]==============================
In Matt 22, Christ condemns the Sadducees for not knowing that there is no marriage in the kingdom, and says they dont know the scripture. Is there some part of our Old Testament that explains this ? I cant seem to find it.
=========================================


That's an interesting question.

But I ...[text shortened]... just according to the letter, but according to the life and power implied within them.[/b]
Thanks .. if you do come across any info about the actual scriptures that was used in those days it would be nice to have an idea which books are not now included in our OT. Not that it will make any difference to our basic doctrine...

Kali

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Originally posted by KellyJay
Matt

28 In the resurrection therefore whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.

29 But Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.

30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as angels in heaven.

I believe according to Jesus' answer ...[text shortened]... ng not in scripture, which was that there was marriage in heaven between
men and women.
Kelly
If the scriptures said nothing about the state one is in upon resurrection then the assumption made by the Sadducees does not seem all that out of line. Does not seem to warrant such a strong condemnation from Christ. There must be more to the story.

Walk your Faith

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1 edit

Originally posted by Rajk999
If the scriptures said nothing about the state one is in upon resurrection then the assumption made by the Sadducees does not seem all that out of line. Does not seem to warrant such a strong condemnation from Christ. There must be more to the story.
Adding to or taking away isn't a wise thing.
Where do you think they got their views about resurrection?
Kelly

Z

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Originally posted by KellyJay
Adding to or taking away isn't a wise thing.
Where do you think they got their views about resurrection?
Kelly
but there are numerous texts left out of the bible. the dead sea scrolls, some books that are in the catholic bible and not in the protestant or in the orthodox. the alledged gospels of Philip, Thomas. The rumored gospels of judas, magdalene. who gets to decide what goes in and what goes out? and why can't we decide this now, when we have a better understanding of the text and the world has changed.

j

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4 edits

Originally posted by Rajk999
Thanks .. if you do come across any info about the actual scriptures that was used in those days it would be nice to have an idea which books are not now included in our OT. Not that it will make any difference to our basic doctrine...
When I was interested in exploring this subject matter this book was recommended to me -

"A General Introduction to the Bible" by Norman L. Geisler and William E. Nix, published by Moody Press.

To spark your interest here are some of the chapter headings in this 480 page book:

Chapters 10 - 15 -

Determination of Canonicity
Development and History of the Old Testament Canon
The Old Testament Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha
Development and History of the New Testament Canon
The New Testament Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha


The book paid for itself many times over. And I have two copies of it, one of which I have owned for decades. This is the book I would recommend that you add to your library.