Eternal Gospel vs the Gospel of Grace

All the names of Jesus in chapter 25 are full of meaning.

To His lovers awaiting His return He is the bridegroom. The ten virgins await the coming bridegroom.

To His servants serving Him He is lord. He is their lord in the parable of the faithful servants.

This does not mean that servants and virgins are different people.
But rather one teaching stresses a relationship of LOVE while the other stresses a relationship of SERVICE.

Now concerning Christ's relationship to the nations in general He is "the Son of Man" . Also in relation to His kingdom set up over the world He is "the Son of Man" . This is His relationship to all mankind in general.

Watchman Nee writes:

The Son of man has the power to judge. As the Son of God the Lord raises people from the dead, and this is His relationship to the church; as the Son of man He executes judgment, and this is tje Lord's relationship to the Gentiles (see John 5:25,27). The Son of man is also related to the kingdom (see Dan. 7.25,27). The Lord shall come to establish His kingdom, but He first must judge the world. Only those who pass through the judgment successfully are quaified to be people in the kingdom. Are we not to reign as kings with Christ? How then can we reign if there are no people? Where is there a kingdom which has no people?

Originally posted by sonship
See post just above your last.

A dispensational transition is a change in some principle by which God manages His household.

I can point our four of them in the Bible.

Originally posted by sonship
Giving you a short answer would be more work than giving you a longer one. You will probably just find various things to complain about.

So I figure I'll just see the level of your real interest and if you digest the three posts on that matter I have supplied. The third one was very short.

Do you know what I mean ?
"Give ,me a real short answer" followed by "But ... but ... but ... but etc."

1.) There was a dispensation between Adam and Moses (Rom.5:14) [edited]. This was a dispensation of the patriarchs.

2.) There was another dispensation from Moses to Christ (John 1:17) .That was the dispensation of the law.

3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). That is the dispensation of grace.

4.) There will be another dispensation from Christ's second coming to the end of the millennial kingdom (Rev. 11:15:20:4,6). That is the dispensation of the kingdom.

Between each of these dispensations there are matters pertaining to a time of transition.

Originally posted by sonship
1.) There was a dispensation between Adam and Moses [b](Rom.5:14) [edited]. This was a dispensation of the patriarchs.

2.) There was another dispensation from Moses to Christ (John 1:17) .That was the dispensation of the law.

3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). T ...[text shortened]... gdom.

Between each of this dispensation there are matters pertaining to a time of transition.[/b]

Originally posted by divegeester
Thank you. What is a dispensation translation?

Originally posted by sonship
1.) There was a dispensation between Adam and Moses [b](Rom.5:14) [edited]. This was a dispensation of the patriarchs.

2.) There was another dispensation from Moses to Christ (John 1:17) .That was the dispensation of the law.

3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). T ...[text shortened]... gdom.

Between each of this dispensation there are matters pertaining to a time of transition.[/b]

Originally posted by divegeester
No dispensation of grace?

1.) There was a dispensation between Adam and Moses (Rom.5:14) [edited]. This was a dispensation of the patriarchs.

2.) There was another dispensation from Moses to Christ (John 1:17) .That was the dispensation of the law.

*** 3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). That is the dispensation of grace. ***

4.) There will be another dispensation from Christ's second coming to the end of the millennial kingdom (Rev. 11:15:20:4,6). That is the dispensation of the kingdom.

Originally posted by sonship

1.) There was a dispensation between Adam and Moses (Rom.5:14) [edited]. This was a dispensation of the patriarchs.

2.) There was another dispensation from Moses to Christ (John 1:17) .That was the dispensation of the law.

*** 3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). That is the disp ...[text shortened]... the millennial kingdom (Rev. 11:15:20:4,6). That is the dispensation of the kingdom.

Originally posted by divegeester

I've lost interest im afraid. I just don't think you have anything here of any real value. Sorry.

So, what is difficult for the traditional Christianity mindset to get is that Christ's kingdom could be on earth with people as citizens who are themselves not born again.

This is a problem I had to contemplate when I heard about "an eternal gospel" distinct from the gospel that the apostles and evangelists preach throughout the church age.

We should look more into this to see if it could be so.

The original post did contain the phrase "grace" to the best of my research.

3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). That is the dispensation of grace.

Originally posted by sonship

I've lost interest im afraid. I just don't think you have anything here of any real value. Sorry.

No problem if you've lost interest. Apparently you are very dense or simply not reading.

I don't need you for the discussion. I can pose problematic issues myself.

Originally posted by sonship
The original post did contain the phrase "grace" to the best of my research.

3.) There was another dispensation between Christ's first coming and His second coming (Acts 3:20-21). [b] That is the dispensation of grace.

my bolding.[/b]