Originally posted by checkbaiter
I saw a little of myself in Bbarrs post too. But not neccessarily in a negative sense. Just fyi, the "heart" which is what we "believe" with, is figuritive. Of course that should be obvious.
Rom 10:10
10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
(NKJ)
The heart is what I call, th ...[text shortened]... or the other cases and the plural see 1691, 1698, 1700, 2248, 2249, 2254, 2257, etc.
🙂
1473 ego (eg-o'😉;
a primary pronoun of the first person I (only expressed when emphatic):
This is certainly accurate as far as it goes. But if you note the syntax in Galatians 2:20, Paul seems to be using
ego in an unusual way; I'm not convinced it is being used in the emphatic sense with a verb (e.g.,
ego eimi.) I’m speaking from memory here, but my Greek grammar noted that the definite article is not always used with a noun, even when it is to be understood—and for exegetes, that seems to be a judgment call. For example, in Gal. 2:20, the phrase “but lives in me Christ,” I think it would be perfectly grammatical to insert the definite article to read it “the Christ” (
ho Christos). And I wonder about that possibility with the “ego” in this verse.
I think there is seldom a clear-cut “one right way” to translate from Greek (or probably any other language) into English, although occasionally there may be. This is emphatically true for Hebrew. Other times, a particular translation seems to become “normative” among translators over time. (and I think these are sometimes doctrinal decisions). Also, English words change their meanings, or at least their connotations, over time.
I think it is very important to at least recognize alternative possibilities.
psuche, again, for example. In the same 5 Johanine verses that I mentioned, the KJV also translates
psuche, not as mind, soul or self—but as life. But in John 12:27, it is translated as “soul” by the KJV, RSV and NRS; and by “heart” by the NIV. All in all (according to
Young’s Analytical Concordance it is translated in the KJV as “soul” 58 times, as “life” 40 times, as “mind” 3 times, and as “heart” once.
I clicked through 347 uses of
ego in the Greek, and only found the following (in addition to, possibly, Gal. 2:20) where it is not joined to a verb:
Mark 14:19 They began to be distressed and to say to him one after another, "Surely, not
I?"
Acts 7:32 'I [am] the God of your ancestors, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.' Moses began to tremble and did not dare to look.
Acts 9:10 Now there was a disciple in Damascus named Ananias. The Lord said to him in a vision, "Ananias." He answered, "Here I [am], Lord."
Romans 7:20 Now if I do what I do not want, it is
no longer I that do it, but sin that dwells within me.
Romans 7:24 Wretched man that I [am]! Who will rescue me from this body of death?
1 Corinthians 7:10 To the married I give this command—
not I but the Lord-- that the wife should not separate from her husband
1 Corinthians 7:12 To the rest I say—
I and not the Lord-- that if any believer has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her.
1 Corinthians 15:10 But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me has not been in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them-- though it was not
I, but the grace of God that is with me.
1 Timothy 1:11 that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to
me.
Revelation 22:13 I [am] the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end."
The question is, in Gal. 2:20, was Paul using
ego in a simple “designatory” sense (e.g., as it appears to be in Rom. 7:20, and in the Corinthian passages), or in a special sense? Or is it simply “tied” to
zo? I think it is an open hermeneutical question, with no one-and-only “right” solution—but for which I have indicated my preference of understanding.