@deepthought said
Hi joe, I've got a way of doing this on a spreadsheet. The logistic function is:
f(x) = a/(1 + b exp(-mx)) + d
Notice that if we send x to minus infinity we get f = d. Since we expect the total number of deaths far in the past to be zero I'm setting d = 0. This makes the analysis a lot easier. Also I've replaced c with m for reasons that'll become clear below. ...[text shortened]...
So my 95% confidence interval is (1,800 to 42,750)
I'll repeat the calculation with the US data.
I have some questions so I can get a handle on what you are doing:
"The next thing to notice is that for small x we have:
f(x) ~ exp(mx)
So we can get m by taking the log of our data and do linear regression, m gives us the slope of the linear regression which is why I renamed it. We can always write:
b = exp(m*x0) = exp(c) where c is the intercept from linear regression.
In other words b just determines when our zero in time is. Let's choose b so that f(0) = 1. In other words the date of the first case. Then we can write:
f(0) = 1 = a/(1 + b) "
Is the above bit reverse order? If it isn't, I'm missing how we can go directly to f(x)≈e^(mx)
It seems like first we do some algebra:
f(x) = a* e^(mx) /(e^(mx) + b )
Then we constrain b,:
f(0) = 1 = a/(1+b)
Then its clear that for small values of x:
[a/( e^(mx)+b)] ≈ a/(1+b) = 1
Thus, f(x) ≈ e^(mx)
Guess Ill start with that, but I'll have more questions to follow. I hope you don't think I'm being a pain, its just that I don't do these manipulations of approximating functions over certain subsets that often ( I feel like that's more physicist business ), so I require pretty strict logical flow to follow along. 🙂