Transitive in-ness

Transitive in-ness

Posers and Puzzles

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Standard memberPawnokeyhole
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21 Nov 05
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If I have a pain in my foot, and I have my foot in my shoe, why don't I have a pain in my shoe?

M
Standard memberMephisto2

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21 Nov 05

Originally posted by Pawnokeyhole
If I have a pain in my foot, and I have my foot in my shoe, why don't I have a pain in my shoe?
But you have ...

g
Standard membergaurav2711
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21 Nov 05

Originally posted by Pawnokeyhole
If I have a pain in my foot, and I have my foot in my shoe, why don't I have a pain in my shoe?
u'r wearing a small size shoe....so there is no room for the pain to be "in" the shoe. Hence, u do not have a pain in your shoe.

Standard memberPawnokeyhole
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21 Nov 05

Originally posted by Mephisto2
But you have ...
Suppose the pain is not caused by the shoe (it's oversized). Do I still have a pain in my shoe?

r
Standard memberroyalchicken
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21 Nov 05

Either the pain is occurring inside the shoes (in your foot) and you do have transitivity, or it is actually occurring somewhere (maybe your brain) not in your shoe, in which case it is not in your foot either.

Standard memberPawnokeyhole
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Originally posted by royalchicken
Either the pain is occurring inside the shoes (in your foot) and you do have transitivity, or it is actually occurring somewhere (maybe your brain) not in your shoe, in which case it is not in your foot either.
But, don't you agree that, naively speaking, it makes sense to say "I have a pain in my foot" whereas it sounds weird to say "I have a pain in my shoe", even though one's shoe is in one's foot. Do you really think that latter *doesn't* sound weird?

M
Standard memberMephisto2

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21 Nov 05

Originally posted by Pawnokeyhole
But, don't you agree that, naively speaking, it makes sense to say "I have a pain in my foot" whereas it sounds weird to say "I have a pain in my shoe", even though one's shoe is in one's foot. Do you really think that latter *doesn't* sound weird?
Yes, it sounds weird. Also, I have the feeling that the verb 'have' does not have (lol) quite the same meaning in both cases.

Standard memberPawnokeyhole
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21 Nov 05

Originally posted by Pawnokeyhole
But, don't you agree that, naively speaking, it makes sense to say "I have a pain in my foot" whereas it sounds weird to say "I have a pain in my shoe", even though one's shoe is in one's foot. Do you really think that latter *doesn't* sound weird?
Did I really say "even though one's shoe is in one's foot"?

I am clearly more confused that I thought.