15 Apr '14 15:42>1 edit
Originally posted by moonbusYou said:
"I dont think there is any significant special treatment between Jews and Gentiles since Christ died. The death of Christ brought an end to all differentiation between all people. All people are one under God and all are treated and judged with the same yardstick of righteousness."
Yes and no. Gentiles were not expected to keep the thousands of rules and ...[text shortened]... to die a pagan (never having heard the word) than to die a reverted pagan. That's how I read it.
Yes and no. Gentiles were not expected to keep the thousands of rules and regulations which pertained to Jewish life (not to eat certain kinds of flesh, not to wear clothes woven of two kinds of material, etc etc). In this sense, a different yardstick was applied, and a more stringent one (in terms of daily practice), to the Jews.
I am referring to AFTER the death and resurrection of Christ. Jews if they have listened to the teachings of the Apostles would have known that Christ brought in a New Covenant which did away with the Law of Moses. Jews and Gentiles were from that point like one nation under God. Those thousands of laws did not apply after Christ.
In any case your conclusion is like the one I have made as well :
.. in a Christian context, some point of no return might apply to an individual too.
And this is the correct conclusion in my opinion. This is what many Christians here on this site are not able to accept.
They claim that all their sins are 'covered' no matter what they are and they would not be judged for those sins as Christ died for ALL their sins past present and future. I disagree with their conclusion as the Bible says otherwise.