1. Joined
    21 Feb '06
    Moves
    6830
    18 Aug '06 10:36
    Obviously you are leading towards (n-1)/n tends to 1.0 as n tends to infinite, but that doesn't prove that all primes are odd as a counter example can be found.

    By your reasoning you could state that there are no natural numbers less than a googol, since as (n-googol)/n tends to 1.0 as n tends to infinite.
  2. Joined
    21 Jul '06
    Moves
    0
    18 Aug '06 13:341 edit
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    The only thing he proves, so far, is his own superiority, no offence given, he *is* superior.
    What's the weather like down at your altitude?
  3. Joined
    21 Jul '06
    Moves
    0
    18 Aug '06 15:026 edits
    If 100% does not equal 'all', as has been claimed, then the difference must be a set of measure zero.
    This also requires 100% to be defined in terms of measure theory. I doubt whether such a definition exists.
    Confounding everyday words such as 100% with the precise concepts of measure theory is completely unnecessary and invites misunderstanding.
  4. Joined
    11 Nov '05
    Moves
    43938
    18 Aug '06 18:50
    ThudanBlunder seems not to have read what he was commenting. Sorry, read before patronizing.

    Okey, where were we...? And let's stay on topic as far as possible.

    There are an infinit amount of primes, that is easily proven, so we can continue as far as we like. Trillions, quadrillions, even zillions of primes and 1/n gets smaller and smaller. If we break the last barrier and think of all primes there is, all infinite of them, we have 1/inf which gives zero as a result, right?

    Hence the conclusion that of all the primes there exist is 0%, not approximatly 0% but exactly zero, nilch, noll, nothing percent of them even. So there is no even primes, every prime is odd. Q.E.D.

    This is not a play with words. The result may be *odd* (!), *even* (!) astonishing but yet not a laugh from me (of that reason).

    This is not the last posting in this thread. I'm not through yet.
  5. Joined
    21 Jul '06
    Moves
    0
    18 Aug '06 19:01
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    There are an infinit amount of primes, that is easily proven,
    I don't believe you. Please prove it.
  6. Joined
    20 Feb '06
    Moves
    8407
    18 Aug '06 19:406 edits
    Originally posted by FabianFnas

    There are an infinit amount of primes, that is easily proven, so we can continue as far as we like. Trillions, quadrillions, even zillions of primes and 1/n gets smaller and smaller. If we break the last barrier and think of all primes there is, all infinite of them, we have 1/inf which gives zero as a result, right?
    No, wrong I'm afraid. What exactly is this 'barrier' you're 'breaking through'?

    Read my first post above. To make a statement like

    Q( { p is odd } ) = 1

    needs a probability measure Q on the set of primes p. If this is to be got from a limit of statements

    Q( { p is odd } given { p is one of the first n primes } ) = 1 - 1/n

    then Q needs to be uniform on the set of primes. But no uniform probability measure exists on an infinite countable set.

    To see why this is true, suppose P is a uniform probability measure on the set N of natural numbers 1, 2, 3, 4,...

    Let P( { 1 } ) =: c a number between 0 and 1 inclusive. Since P is uniform P( { n } ) = c for all natural numbers n. So for every k in N we have, since measures are finitely additive:

    k*c = P( { 1, 2, ... , k } ) < P( N ) = 1

    and it follows that c = 0. But now, since measures are countably additive:

    1 = P( N ) = sum_{k=1 to infinity} P( { k } ) = sum_{k=1 to infinity} 0 = 0

    a contradiction. So no such P exists.

    I thought also Fat Lady made a very good point with the googol, although what (s)he said wasn't probabilistic.

    Anyway, I assume that by now you're joking with us!
  7. Joined
    26 Apr '03
    Moves
    26771
    18 Aug '06 20:39
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    ThudanBlunder seems not to have read what he was commenting. Sorry, read before patronizing.

    Okey, where were we...? And let's stay on topic as far as possible.

    There are an infinit amount of primes, that is easily proven, so we can continue as far as we like. Trillions, quadrillions, even zillions of primes and 1/n gets smaller and smaller. If we b ...[text shortened]... from me (of that reason).

    This is not the last posting in this thread. I'm not through yet.
    I can "prove" that no prime except 1 is divisible by itself, by a derivative of your technique.
  8. Joined
    11 Nov '05
    Moves
    43938
    18 Aug '06 20:54
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    There are an infinit amount of primes, that is easily proven,

    Originally posted by ThudanBlunder
    I don't believe you. Please prove it.
    I thought that was standard knowledge. Here's a proof:
    http://www.ultrasolo.com/Maths/Proof/Infinity%20of%20Primes.htm
  9. Standard memberBowmann
    Non-Subscriber
    RHP IQ
    Joined
    17 Mar '05
    Moves
    1345
    18 Aug '06 21:24
    Originally posted by iamatiger
    I can "prove" that no prime except 1 is divisible by itself, by a derivative of your technique.
    1 is not prime. All prime numbers less than 3 are even.
  10. Joined
    21 Jul '06
    Moves
    0
    18 Aug '06 22:082 edits
    Originally posted by SPMars
    Anyway, I assume that by now you're joking with us!

    I am sure he is not. You can take a horse to water but you cannot make it think. Bring back eugenics now!
  11. Joined
    11 Nov '05
    Moves
    43938
    21 Aug '06 11:51
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    This is not the last posting in this thread. I'm not through yet.
    When I present this problem, or should I say, this paradox in a party, or at a coffee break som looks at me with astonishments, nearly to think I've done a major breakthrough in mathematics, earning the Nobel prize in Mathematics or something. Most people can't imagine the flaw in my reasoning, but still there is a flaw.

    This puzzle, presented, is not the puzzle that it seems to be presented. Merely it is a puzzle about - where is my reasoning wrong? That is the final question.

    I've seen some tries to explain to me where I reason wrong. Like "100% of the primes" is not the same as "all the primes", invoking theory of probability, deep set theory, and other attempts. But no one has yet explained in layman’s terms where the error is in the reasoning.

    I say, every prime is odd, and I 'prove' it despite the fact that there is an counter exemple, i.e. 2.
    Is this a real paradox? Or where is the simple error in the reasoning?
  12. Standard memberXanthosNZ
    Cancerous Bus Crash
    p^2.sin(phi)
    Joined
    06 Sep '04
    Moves
    25076
    21 Aug '06 12:03
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    When I present this problem, or should I say, this paradox in a party, or at a coffee break som looks at me with astonishments, nearly to think I've done a major breakthrough in mathematics, earning the Nobel prize in Mathematics or something. Most people can't imagine the flaw in my reasoning, but still there is a flaw.

    This puzzle, presented, is not ...[text shortened]... xemple, i.e. 2.
    Is this a real paradox? Or where is the simple error in the reasoning?
    Good God you're an idiot. I mean really. I've shown exactly where your error in reasoning is multiple times.
  13. Standard memberPalynka
    Upward Spiral
    Halfway
    Joined
    02 Aug '04
    Moves
    8702
    21 Aug '06 15:27
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    When I present this problem, or should I say, this paradox in a party, or at a coffee break som looks at me with astonishments, nearly to think I've done a major breakthrough in mathematics, earning the Nobel prize in Mathematics or something. Most people can't imagine the flaw in my reasoning, but still there is a flaw.

    This puzzle, presented, is not ...[text shortened]... xemple, i.e. 2.
    Is this a real paradox? Or where is the simple error in the reasoning?
    A - Set of all prime numbers
    B - Set of all odd numbers

    A intersected with ~B is equal to the singleton {2}. For all prime numbers to be odd it should have been equal to an empty set.
  14. Joined
    21 Jul '06
    Moves
    0
    21 Aug '06 16:43
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    When I present this problem, or should I say, this paradox in a party, or at a coffee break som looks at me with astonishments...
    ...because you are a whack job.
  15. Joined
    11 Nov '05
    Moves
    43938
    21 Aug '06 17:33
    Originally posted by XanthosNZ
    Good God you're an idiot. I mean really.
    Now, Xantoz, You might have brain but you don't have social competence. Doesn't that bother you?

    You repeat time afer time that you know - but you have no ability to show it in laymans terms so everyone could understand it.

    Do you really have that strong urge to show everyone how intelligent you are? And yet fail to do so, so completely?

    When your strongest argument in the matter is that you think I'm an idiot - is there where your argument lack of intelligence? Then I am sorry for you.

    Perhaps you're right, perhaps your not, but when youre strike my face with personal common rudeness, then I suspect something is missing at your personalite. I think it is called social competence.

    Is this the reason that yo don't have any friends in real life? Sorry for you. I have never met somone more verbally aggressive and more negativistic of everything in my entire life. Perhaps you have to work on your personal qualities instead of showing such disrespect to others.

    I suggest you read my last posting once more and then come up with something really intelligent for a starter.

    I hereby put you on my ignore list. And this stops any conversation between you and me until you show even slight of human dignity.
Back to Top

Cookies help us deliver our Services. By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. Learn More.I Agree