Originally posted by YIAMSOMEBODY
If it wasn't illegal during the period he took them, how is that cheating? That boggles my mind......
You are dealing with three sets of criteria.
The first set says there was no specific rule against steroids when he "allegedly" injected them. Technically ---no foul
The second set says it was illegal to purchase them under the FDA guidelines, unless prescribed by a physician. Since he had no perscription---major foul, but not technically in baseball, just US Constitutional law.
The third set is the moral majority that includes the writers & media(who of course never break any laws), the HOF committee, the fans, and the commissioner's office who has to answer for the problem. They pronounce guilt in baseball by association with guilt against the US government and their sense of "fair play". In their eyes----major and unforgivable foul.
Just wondering why they don't throw the book at them for DWI convictions, or DUI or drunk and disorderly convictions? They have selectively enforced income tax evasion. They have not prosecuted spousal abuse or child abuse. They haven't gone after those who have extramarital affairs, entertaining with hookers or call girls. They have selectively enforced ties to gambling institutions or known bookmakers. Seems a bit of a double standard if you ask me.