08 Jan '19 01:16>1 edit
@thinkofone saidYour alternative translation is false.
The fact remains that the footnote is NOT " trying to teach that 'HIS' does not refer to the child and the son" as you asserted.
Instead it provides an alternative translation of Isaiah 9:6. An alternative translation that completely eliminates the problem of "the Everlasting Father" describing the "son" with which you struggled. The reason you struggle with it is bec ...[text shortened]... se it doesn't make sense - and you've admitted that you can't offer a reasonable explanation for it.
No one, not one accredited theologian teaches that nonsense. It's just you, and you're nobody.
Like all the other nobodys I've met throughout my life that have the most bizarre interpretations of scripture, just because it has to mean what they think it means. Strange little guys they are with no friends or followers. They just pop up on the scene and pontificate as though he knows what he's talking about, but everyone can see he doesn't, except him.